why do you and others feel the need to dogpile me?
I've literally only posted
twice so far, and only
once before you resorted to that strawman argument - if you think that merely replying to you and addressing inaccurate information is "
dogpiling you", I sadly suspect nothing will meet your comfort level barring wholesale, blind agreement. Dismissing any and all dissent as "dogpiling" is merely another attempt to shut down discussion.
But lets put that point aside for now in the name of civil discussion and get to the crux of the matter - given the fact that your initial claim that "
these climatic changes were simply more dramatic than the others" is untrue, and that the post-glacial habitat changes (regression of steppic habitat and replacement with temperate woodlands, wetlands etc) which you subsequently cited as the primary factor had *
also* occurred during previous interglacial periods with no resulting mass extinction of megafauna, an additional factor must have been in play. When comparing the last interglacial period to the current interglacial period, there* is* one major difference in the biogeographic landscape - the presence of
Homo sapiens in Europe, Asia and North America.
As such, there are three options:
1) This was indeed the additional factor in play which led to megafaunal mass extinctions.
2) There
was no additional factor in play, and the megafaunal extinctions were caused by the same changes in climate/habitat which these species had survived unscathed numerous times previously - in which case the question is how you would explain this?
3) Another undiscovered factor was in play - in which case the question is, what do you think this could have been, given the fact your original suggestion (that the change in climate between glacial and interglacial was more dramatic this time) is incorrect?